Proving $f(x)=|x|$ is onto
$begingroup$
I've been working on proving that this is a onto function:
$f$ : $mathbb R$ $to$ $mathbb R^{geq0}$ is defined by $f(x)=|x|$
My proof so far: Let $yinmathbb R$.
Rough work: $|x|=y Rightarrow sqrt {x^2}=y Rightarrow n^2=y^2 Rightarrow pm x=pm y$
Suppose $f(pm y)=|pm y|=y$.
I know that this function is definitely onto given the co-domain of $mathbb R^{geq0}$, but I feel like my proof is flawed. Am I supposed to individually account for the $-x$ and the $+x$ from $pm x=pm y$ when trying to solve $f(x) = y$?
Thanks!
proof-verification elementary-set-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I've been working on proving that this is a onto function:
$f$ : $mathbb R$ $to$ $mathbb R^{geq0}$ is defined by $f(x)=|x|$
My proof so far: Let $yinmathbb R$.
Rough work: $|x|=y Rightarrow sqrt {x^2}=y Rightarrow n^2=y^2 Rightarrow pm x=pm y$
Suppose $f(pm y)=|pm y|=y$.
I know that this function is definitely onto given the co-domain of $mathbb R^{geq0}$, but I feel like my proof is flawed. Am I supposed to individually account for the $-x$ and the $+x$ from $pm x=pm y$ when trying to solve $f(x) = y$?
Thanks!
proof-verification elementary-set-theory
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Let $ain mathbb R ^{geq 0}$. Then by definition, $|a|=a$. Therefore, $a$ is in the image of $f:xmapsto |x|$.
$endgroup$
– Arrow
yesterday
6
$begingroup$
You proof is wrong from the beginning. You need to assume y is in the nonnegative reals and show you can find a real x that maps to it.
$endgroup$
– symplectomorphic
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I've been working on proving that this is a onto function:
$f$ : $mathbb R$ $to$ $mathbb R^{geq0}$ is defined by $f(x)=|x|$
My proof so far: Let $yinmathbb R$.
Rough work: $|x|=y Rightarrow sqrt {x^2}=y Rightarrow n^2=y^2 Rightarrow pm x=pm y$
Suppose $f(pm y)=|pm y|=y$.
I know that this function is definitely onto given the co-domain of $mathbb R^{geq0}$, but I feel like my proof is flawed. Am I supposed to individually account for the $-x$ and the $+x$ from $pm x=pm y$ when trying to solve $f(x) = y$?
Thanks!
proof-verification elementary-set-theory
$endgroup$
I've been working on proving that this is a onto function:
$f$ : $mathbb R$ $to$ $mathbb R^{geq0}$ is defined by $f(x)=|x|$
My proof so far: Let $yinmathbb R$.
Rough work: $|x|=y Rightarrow sqrt {x^2}=y Rightarrow n^2=y^2 Rightarrow pm x=pm y$
Suppose $f(pm y)=|pm y|=y$.
I know that this function is definitely onto given the co-domain of $mathbb R^{geq0}$, but I feel like my proof is flawed. Am I supposed to individually account for the $-x$ and the $+x$ from $pm x=pm y$ when trying to solve $f(x) = y$?
Thanks!
proof-verification elementary-set-theory
proof-verification elementary-set-theory
edited 21 hours ago
YuiTo Cheng
2,1362837
2,1362837
asked yesterday
Nick SabiaNick Sabia
285
285
1
$begingroup$
Let $ain mathbb R ^{geq 0}$. Then by definition, $|a|=a$. Therefore, $a$ is in the image of $f:xmapsto |x|$.
$endgroup$
– Arrow
yesterday
6
$begingroup$
You proof is wrong from the beginning. You need to assume y is in the nonnegative reals and show you can find a real x that maps to it.
$endgroup$
– symplectomorphic
yesterday
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Let $ain mathbb R ^{geq 0}$. Then by definition, $|a|=a$. Therefore, $a$ is in the image of $f:xmapsto |x|$.
$endgroup$
– Arrow
yesterday
6
$begingroup$
You proof is wrong from the beginning. You need to assume y is in the nonnegative reals and show you can find a real x that maps to it.
$endgroup$
– symplectomorphic
yesterday
1
1
$begingroup$
Let $ain mathbb R ^{geq 0}$. Then by definition, $|a|=a$. Therefore, $a$ is in the image of $f:xmapsto |x|$.
$endgroup$
– Arrow
yesterday
$begingroup$
Let $ain mathbb R ^{geq 0}$. Then by definition, $|a|=a$. Therefore, $a$ is in the image of $f:xmapsto |x|$.
$endgroup$
– Arrow
yesterday
6
6
$begingroup$
You proof is wrong from the beginning. You need to assume y is in the nonnegative reals and show you can find a real x that maps to it.
$endgroup$
– symplectomorphic
yesterday
$begingroup$
You proof is wrong from the beginning. You need to assume y is in the nonnegative reals and show you can find a real x that maps to it.
$endgroup$
– symplectomorphic
yesterday
add a comment |
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
In order to show that the function is onto (surjective) it is enough to argue that for each $y$ in the codomain there is at least one $x$ in the domain that maps to it.
You seem to be trying to find all of the $x$ such that $f(x)=y$, which is more work than you need to do and creates a rather large detour.
You could just say:
Let $yinmathbb R^{ge 0}$ be given. Then $f(y)=|y|=y$, so by setting $x=y$ we find an $xinmathbb R$ such that $f(x)=y$. Since $y$ was arbitrary this proves that $f$ is surjective.
(Even this is more verbose than it really needs to be, but in exercises at this elementary level it is good to be explicit about the details, to show that you know what you're doing).
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
(+1) Because this is a vey pedagogical answer.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Am I supposed to individually account for the -x and the +x from ±x=±y when trying to solve f(x)=y?
No.
You are simply supposed to show that for any general arbitrary $y in mathbb R^{ge 0}$ that there is, at least (you don't have to find them all), one $xin mathbb R$ so that $|x| = y$.
As $|y| = y$ this is very easy. And you are done.
The proof is two lines:
1) Let $y in mathbb R^{ge 0}$.
2) $f(y) = |y| = y$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You should not start with $yinmathbb R$ but rather with $yinmathbb{R}^{geqslant0}$. Then $y=f(y)$. Since this happens for every $yinmathbb{R}^{geqslant 0}$, $f$ is onto.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Well, you want to show that $f$ is onto. So take an arbitrary element $yin{Bbb R}_{geq 0}$ from the image set and find a preimage. Here a preimage is $y$ itself or even $-y$, since $|-y|=y$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
More generally, If $B subseteq A$ and $f: A rightarrow B$ is a continuous mapping with $f(b) = b$ for all $b in B$ then $f$ is called a retraction of $A$ onto $B$. It is trivial that any such $f$ is onto since $f(b) = b$ for all $b in B$ immediately implies that all such $b$ are in the range. Note that continuity really plays no role in this. Thinking of $|x|$ as a retraction is perhaps overkill, but shows that the proof that it is onto the nonnegative reals is a special case of a more general (and equally easy to prove) result.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
In order to show that the function is onto (surjective) it is enough to argue that for each $y$ in the codomain there is at least one $x$ in the domain that maps to it.
You seem to be trying to find all of the $x$ such that $f(x)=y$, which is more work than you need to do and creates a rather large detour.
You could just say:
Let $yinmathbb R^{ge 0}$ be given. Then $f(y)=|y|=y$, so by setting $x=y$ we find an $xinmathbb R$ such that $f(x)=y$. Since $y$ was arbitrary this proves that $f$ is surjective.
(Even this is more verbose than it really needs to be, but in exercises at this elementary level it is good to be explicit about the details, to show that you know what you're doing).
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
(+1) Because this is a vey pedagogical answer.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In order to show that the function is onto (surjective) it is enough to argue that for each $y$ in the codomain there is at least one $x$ in the domain that maps to it.
You seem to be trying to find all of the $x$ such that $f(x)=y$, which is more work than you need to do and creates a rather large detour.
You could just say:
Let $yinmathbb R^{ge 0}$ be given. Then $f(y)=|y|=y$, so by setting $x=y$ we find an $xinmathbb R$ such that $f(x)=y$. Since $y$ was arbitrary this proves that $f$ is surjective.
(Even this is more verbose than it really needs to be, but in exercises at this elementary level it is good to be explicit about the details, to show that you know what you're doing).
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
(+1) Because this is a vey pedagogical answer.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In order to show that the function is onto (surjective) it is enough to argue that for each $y$ in the codomain there is at least one $x$ in the domain that maps to it.
You seem to be trying to find all of the $x$ such that $f(x)=y$, which is more work than you need to do and creates a rather large detour.
You could just say:
Let $yinmathbb R^{ge 0}$ be given. Then $f(y)=|y|=y$, so by setting $x=y$ we find an $xinmathbb R$ such that $f(x)=y$. Since $y$ was arbitrary this proves that $f$ is surjective.
(Even this is more verbose than it really needs to be, but in exercises at this elementary level it is good to be explicit about the details, to show that you know what you're doing).
$endgroup$
In order to show that the function is onto (surjective) it is enough to argue that for each $y$ in the codomain there is at least one $x$ in the domain that maps to it.
You seem to be trying to find all of the $x$ such that $f(x)=y$, which is more work than you need to do and creates a rather large detour.
You could just say:
Let $yinmathbb R^{ge 0}$ be given. Then $f(y)=|y|=y$, so by setting $x=y$ we find an $xinmathbb R$ such that $f(x)=y$. Since $y$ was arbitrary this proves that $f$ is surjective.
(Even this is more verbose than it really needs to be, but in exercises at this elementary level it is good to be explicit about the details, to show that you know what you're doing).
answered yesterday
Henning MakholmHenning Makholm
242k17308551
242k17308551
1
$begingroup$
(+1) Because this is a vey pedagogical answer.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
yesterday
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
(+1) Because this is a vey pedagogical answer.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
yesterday
1
1
$begingroup$
(+1) Because this is a vey pedagogical answer.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
yesterday
$begingroup$
(+1) Because this is a vey pedagogical answer.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Am I supposed to individually account for the -x and the +x from ±x=±y when trying to solve f(x)=y?
No.
You are simply supposed to show that for any general arbitrary $y in mathbb R^{ge 0}$ that there is, at least (you don't have to find them all), one $xin mathbb R$ so that $|x| = y$.
As $|y| = y$ this is very easy. And you are done.
The proof is two lines:
1) Let $y in mathbb R^{ge 0}$.
2) $f(y) = |y| = y$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Am I supposed to individually account for the -x and the +x from ±x=±y when trying to solve f(x)=y?
No.
You are simply supposed to show that for any general arbitrary $y in mathbb R^{ge 0}$ that there is, at least (you don't have to find them all), one $xin mathbb R$ so that $|x| = y$.
As $|y| = y$ this is very easy. And you are done.
The proof is two lines:
1) Let $y in mathbb R^{ge 0}$.
2) $f(y) = |y| = y$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Am I supposed to individually account for the -x and the +x from ±x=±y when trying to solve f(x)=y?
No.
You are simply supposed to show that for any general arbitrary $y in mathbb R^{ge 0}$ that there is, at least (you don't have to find them all), one $xin mathbb R$ so that $|x| = y$.
As $|y| = y$ this is very easy. And you are done.
The proof is two lines:
1) Let $y in mathbb R^{ge 0}$.
2) $f(y) = |y| = y$.
$endgroup$
Am I supposed to individually account for the -x and the +x from ±x=±y when trying to solve f(x)=y?
No.
You are simply supposed to show that for any general arbitrary $y in mathbb R^{ge 0}$ that there is, at least (you don't have to find them all), one $xin mathbb R$ so that $|x| = y$.
As $|y| = y$ this is very easy. And you are done.
The proof is two lines:
1) Let $y in mathbb R^{ge 0}$.
2) $f(y) = |y| = y$.
answered yesterday
fleabloodfleablood
73.4k22791
73.4k22791
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You should not start with $yinmathbb R$ but rather with $yinmathbb{R}^{geqslant0}$. Then $y=f(y)$. Since this happens for every $yinmathbb{R}^{geqslant 0}$, $f$ is onto.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You should not start with $yinmathbb R$ but rather with $yinmathbb{R}^{geqslant0}$. Then $y=f(y)$. Since this happens for every $yinmathbb{R}^{geqslant 0}$, $f$ is onto.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You should not start with $yinmathbb R$ but rather with $yinmathbb{R}^{geqslant0}$. Then $y=f(y)$. Since this happens for every $yinmathbb{R}^{geqslant 0}$, $f$ is onto.
$endgroup$
You should not start with $yinmathbb R$ but rather with $yinmathbb{R}^{geqslant0}$. Then $y=f(y)$. Since this happens for every $yinmathbb{R}^{geqslant 0}$, $f$ is onto.
edited yesterday
J. W. Tanner
3,8001320
3,8001320
answered yesterday
José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos
170k23132238
170k23132238
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Well, you want to show that $f$ is onto. So take an arbitrary element $yin{Bbb R}_{geq 0}$ from the image set and find a preimage. Here a preimage is $y$ itself or even $-y$, since $|-y|=y$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Well, you want to show that $f$ is onto. So take an arbitrary element $yin{Bbb R}_{geq 0}$ from the image set and find a preimage. Here a preimage is $y$ itself or even $-y$, since $|-y|=y$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Well, you want to show that $f$ is onto. So take an arbitrary element $yin{Bbb R}_{geq 0}$ from the image set and find a preimage. Here a preimage is $y$ itself or even $-y$, since $|-y|=y$.
$endgroup$
Well, you want to show that $f$ is onto. So take an arbitrary element $yin{Bbb R}_{geq 0}$ from the image set and find a preimage. Here a preimage is $y$ itself or even $-y$, since $|-y|=y$.
answered yesterday
WuestenfuxWuestenfux
5,2981513
5,2981513
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
More generally, If $B subseteq A$ and $f: A rightarrow B$ is a continuous mapping with $f(b) = b$ for all $b in B$ then $f$ is called a retraction of $A$ onto $B$. It is trivial that any such $f$ is onto since $f(b) = b$ for all $b in B$ immediately implies that all such $b$ are in the range. Note that continuity really plays no role in this. Thinking of $|x|$ as a retraction is perhaps overkill, but shows that the proof that it is onto the nonnegative reals is a special case of a more general (and equally easy to prove) result.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
More generally, If $B subseteq A$ and $f: A rightarrow B$ is a continuous mapping with $f(b) = b$ for all $b in B$ then $f$ is called a retraction of $A$ onto $B$. It is trivial that any such $f$ is onto since $f(b) = b$ for all $b in B$ immediately implies that all such $b$ are in the range. Note that continuity really plays no role in this. Thinking of $|x|$ as a retraction is perhaps overkill, but shows that the proof that it is onto the nonnegative reals is a special case of a more general (and equally easy to prove) result.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
More generally, If $B subseteq A$ and $f: A rightarrow B$ is a continuous mapping with $f(b) = b$ for all $b in B$ then $f$ is called a retraction of $A$ onto $B$. It is trivial that any such $f$ is onto since $f(b) = b$ for all $b in B$ immediately implies that all such $b$ are in the range. Note that continuity really plays no role in this. Thinking of $|x|$ as a retraction is perhaps overkill, but shows that the proof that it is onto the nonnegative reals is a special case of a more general (and equally easy to prove) result.
$endgroup$
More generally, If $B subseteq A$ and $f: A rightarrow B$ is a continuous mapping with $f(b) = b$ for all $b in B$ then $f$ is called a retraction of $A$ onto $B$. It is trivial that any such $f$ is onto since $f(b) = b$ for all $b in B$ immediately implies that all such $b$ are in the range. Note that continuity really plays no role in this. Thinking of $|x|$ as a retraction is perhaps overkill, but shows that the proof that it is onto the nonnegative reals is a special case of a more general (and equally easy to prove) result.
answered yesterday
John ColemanJohn Coleman
3,98311224
3,98311224
add a comment |
add a comment |
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1
$begingroup$
Let $ain mathbb R ^{geq 0}$. Then by definition, $|a|=a$. Therefore, $a$ is in the image of $f:xmapsto |x|$.
$endgroup$
– Arrow
yesterday
6
$begingroup$
You proof is wrong from the beginning. You need to assume y is in the nonnegative reals and show you can find a real x that maps to it.
$endgroup$
– symplectomorphic
yesterday