Offered money to buy a house, seller is asking for more to cover gap between their listing and mortgage owed












8















I am purchasing a house, and apparently the seller owes more on it than what he listed it for. His realtor is now asking me if I can come up with 4000 dollars to be able to close. Is this legal? If I don't come up with this money (that is technically not my responsibility) will the deal really fall through?










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user83725 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • 4





    you could wait for the bank to repossess it and buy it at accurate market price at that point in time.

    – CQM
    2 days ago






  • 11





    Do not discount the possibility you're being lied to.

    – corsiKa
    2 days ago






  • 7





    So the seller has listed their house for say $360k, and you met their offer (as opposed to offering less, not that it should matter), and they accepted your offer, but are now asking for an extra $4k? Or are you still negotiating (they asked $360k, you offered $350k, and they're saying they'd really prefer $354k to cover expenses)?

    – Tas
    2 days ago






  • 7





    This depends entirely on what phase of the purchase you are in (and what country you're in). If they've accepted an offer from you then, in most advanced countries, you have a legally binding agreement at whatever terms you've both agreed to. If you've not yet had an offer accepted, then they can ask anything they want, or not sell the house at all.

    – J...
    2 days ago






  • 3





    Perhaps his realtor could pitch in?

    – Chris W. Rea
    2 days ago
















8















I am purchasing a house, and apparently the seller owes more on it than what he listed it for. His realtor is now asking me if I can come up with 4000 dollars to be able to close. Is this legal? If I don't come up with this money (that is technically not my responsibility) will the deal really fall through?










share|improve this question









New contributor




user83725 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
















  • 4





    you could wait for the bank to repossess it and buy it at accurate market price at that point in time.

    – CQM
    2 days ago






  • 11





    Do not discount the possibility you're being lied to.

    – corsiKa
    2 days ago






  • 7





    So the seller has listed their house for say $360k, and you met their offer (as opposed to offering less, not that it should matter), and they accepted your offer, but are now asking for an extra $4k? Or are you still negotiating (they asked $360k, you offered $350k, and they're saying they'd really prefer $354k to cover expenses)?

    – Tas
    2 days ago






  • 7





    This depends entirely on what phase of the purchase you are in (and what country you're in). If they've accepted an offer from you then, in most advanced countries, you have a legally binding agreement at whatever terms you've both agreed to. If you've not yet had an offer accepted, then they can ask anything they want, or not sell the house at all.

    – J...
    2 days ago






  • 3





    Perhaps his realtor could pitch in?

    – Chris W. Rea
    2 days ago














8












8








8








I am purchasing a house, and apparently the seller owes more on it than what he listed it for. His realtor is now asking me if I can come up with 4000 dollars to be able to close. Is this legal? If I don't come up with this money (that is technically not my responsibility) will the deal really fall through?










share|improve this question









New contributor




user83725 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












I am purchasing a house, and apparently the seller owes more on it than what he listed it for. His realtor is now asking me if I can come up with 4000 dollars to be able to close. Is this legal? If I don't come up with this money (that is technically not my responsibility) will the deal really fall through?







house






share|improve this question









New contributor




user83725 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|improve this question









New contributor




user83725 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|improve this question




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edited 2 days ago









Tas

1735




1735






New contributor




user83725 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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asked 2 days ago









user83725user83725

4112




4112




New contributor




user83725 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor





user83725 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






user83725 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.








  • 4





    you could wait for the bank to repossess it and buy it at accurate market price at that point in time.

    – CQM
    2 days ago






  • 11





    Do not discount the possibility you're being lied to.

    – corsiKa
    2 days ago






  • 7





    So the seller has listed their house for say $360k, and you met their offer (as opposed to offering less, not that it should matter), and they accepted your offer, but are now asking for an extra $4k? Or are you still negotiating (they asked $360k, you offered $350k, and they're saying they'd really prefer $354k to cover expenses)?

    – Tas
    2 days ago






  • 7





    This depends entirely on what phase of the purchase you are in (and what country you're in). If they've accepted an offer from you then, in most advanced countries, you have a legally binding agreement at whatever terms you've both agreed to. If you've not yet had an offer accepted, then they can ask anything they want, or not sell the house at all.

    – J...
    2 days ago






  • 3





    Perhaps his realtor could pitch in?

    – Chris W. Rea
    2 days ago














  • 4





    you could wait for the bank to repossess it and buy it at accurate market price at that point in time.

    – CQM
    2 days ago






  • 11





    Do not discount the possibility you're being lied to.

    – corsiKa
    2 days ago






  • 7





    So the seller has listed their house for say $360k, and you met their offer (as opposed to offering less, not that it should matter), and they accepted your offer, but are now asking for an extra $4k? Or are you still negotiating (they asked $360k, you offered $350k, and they're saying they'd really prefer $354k to cover expenses)?

    – Tas
    2 days ago






  • 7





    This depends entirely on what phase of the purchase you are in (and what country you're in). If they've accepted an offer from you then, in most advanced countries, you have a legally binding agreement at whatever terms you've both agreed to. If you've not yet had an offer accepted, then they can ask anything they want, or not sell the house at all.

    – J...
    2 days ago






  • 3





    Perhaps his realtor could pitch in?

    – Chris W. Rea
    2 days ago








4




4





you could wait for the bank to repossess it and buy it at accurate market price at that point in time.

– CQM
2 days ago





you could wait for the bank to repossess it and buy it at accurate market price at that point in time.

– CQM
2 days ago




11




11





Do not discount the possibility you're being lied to.

– corsiKa
2 days ago





Do not discount the possibility you're being lied to.

– corsiKa
2 days ago




7




7





So the seller has listed their house for say $360k, and you met their offer (as opposed to offering less, not that it should matter), and they accepted your offer, but are now asking for an extra $4k? Or are you still negotiating (they asked $360k, you offered $350k, and they're saying they'd really prefer $354k to cover expenses)?

– Tas
2 days ago





So the seller has listed their house for say $360k, and you met their offer (as opposed to offering less, not that it should matter), and they accepted your offer, but are now asking for an extra $4k? Or are you still negotiating (they asked $360k, you offered $350k, and they're saying they'd really prefer $354k to cover expenses)?

– Tas
2 days ago




7




7





This depends entirely on what phase of the purchase you are in (and what country you're in). If they've accepted an offer from you then, in most advanced countries, you have a legally binding agreement at whatever terms you've both agreed to. If you've not yet had an offer accepted, then they can ask anything they want, or not sell the house at all.

– J...
2 days ago





This depends entirely on what phase of the purchase you are in (and what country you're in). If they've accepted an offer from you then, in most advanced countries, you have a legally binding agreement at whatever terms you've both agreed to. If you've not yet had an offer accepted, then they can ask anything they want, or not sell the house at all.

– J...
2 days ago




3




3





Perhaps his realtor could pitch in?

– Chris W. Rea
2 days ago





Perhaps his realtor could pitch in?

– Chris W. Rea
2 days ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















23














It is certainly legal to ask you, but you are of course not required to 'donate' another 4000 - that is your choice.

If the deal falls through because of these 4000, it is the seller's fault, and you could sue him for your damages - whatever you invested/paid to get into this closing. Probably not much, but I wouldn't know. Also, chances are that if he is underwater with his home mortgage, he doesn't have the money to pay you even if you win in court, so you'd end up getting only a worthless sheet of paper.



The deal should not fall through for 4000, though. Normally his bank will accept the deal, and he will end up owing those 4000 to his bank still. The amount is probably small compared to the complete mortgage, and the bank would prefer to get the big chunk now and run after the 4000, instead of potentially getting less or nothing later.

So basically, the seller is just trying to sucker you into covering his 4000-problem.






share|improve this answer



















  • 3





    This does assume that the agreement to purchase has reached the binding stage.

    – DJClayworth
    2 days ago






  • 4





    Even if it hasn't, the OP is under no obligation to raise his offer to cover the seller's unexpected expense. The amount the seller still owes does not determine the market value of the house.

    – chepner
    2 days ago






  • 3





    If I was a bank and I could sell a house with an underwater mortgage and only lose 4k on the remaining balance, I'd probably jump at the deal. Chances are the longer it takes to sell, the more money I'll lose on it.

    – corsiKa
    2 days ago






  • 1





    @chepner: But (if a binding agreement hasn't been signed) the seller is under no obligation (AFAIK, but I'm not a lawyer) to actually sell for the listed price. Bidding wars aren't unknown in hot markets. Indeed, I had this happen when I bought my current house: listed for $X, I made an offer for that, the seller came back wanting another $5K. (Which I agreed to, and still think I got a bargain :-))

    – jamesqf
    2 days ago





















0














it is legal frm them to ask. As this point you have a right to walk away and sue them for their time spend because of false advertising (see, they want MORE than their listing - the fees are THEIR problem, so essentially they lied with the listing). There is a fine line between negotiations and fraud and if you make someone else expense energy and time and money because of giving false information you are liable.



Generally this is a liar style negotiation. They say "we list for X" but then they keep up adding other things to the price to ramp the price higher. How high their mortgage is does not matter. They could have waaaay overpaid on the house - so what, their problem. Obviously the ank will not release the house, so they need to pony up the money now. Well, there are hopefully other houses around, or you basically decide to pay a higher price. 4000USD does not sound like a big change (depending on the house) so just ponying up the money may be worth it -but it is YOUR decision, not theirs. You have no legal obligation to pay more.






share|improve this answer



















  • 1





    Your realtor should be able to answer this for you. You should have either a lawyer or a realtor for these questions. I think all the answers here are somewhat correct, but only professional with access to your paperwork is qualified to give you an opinion.

    – Gary
    yesterday










protected by JoeTaxpayer 2 days ago



Thank you for your interest in this question.
Because it has attracted low-quality or spam answers that had to be removed, posting an answer now requires 10 reputation on this site (the association bonus does not count).



Would you like to answer one of these unanswered questions instead?














2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









23














It is certainly legal to ask you, but you are of course not required to 'donate' another 4000 - that is your choice.

If the deal falls through because of these 4000, it is the seller's fault, and you could sue him for your damages - whatever you invested/paid to get into this closing. Probably not much, but I wouldn't know. Also, chances are that if he is underwater with his home mortgage, he doesn't have the money to pay you even if you win in court, so you'd end up getting only a worthless sheet of paper.



The deal should not fall through for 4000, though. Normally his bank will accept the deal, and he will end up owing those 4000 to his bank still. The amount is probably small compared to the complete mortgage, and the bank would prefer to get the big chunk now and run after the 4000, instead of potentially getting less or nothing later.

So basically, the seller is just trying to sucker you into covering his 4000-problem.






share|improve this answer



















  • 3





    This does assume that the agreement to purchase has reached the binding stage.

    – DJClayworth
    2 days ago






  • 4





    Even if it hasn't, the OP is under no obligation to raise his offer to cover the seller's unexpected expense. The amount the seller still owes does not determine the market value of the house.

    – chepner
    2 days ago






  • 3





    If I was a bank and I could sell a house with an underwater mortgage and only lose 4k on the remaining balance, I'd probably jump at the deal. Chances are the longer it takes to sell, the more money I'll lose on it.

    – corsiKa
    2 days ago






  • 1





    @chepner: But (if a binding agreement hasn't been signed) the seller is under no obligation (AFAIK, but I'm not a lawyer) to actually sell for the listed price. Bidding wars aren't unknown in hot markets. Indeed, I had this happen when I bought my current house: listed for $X, I made an offer for that, the seller came back wanting another $5K. (Which I agreed to, and still think I got a bargain :-))

    – jamesqf
    2 days ago


















23














It is certainly legal to ask you, but you are of course not required to 'donate' another 4000 - that is your choice.

If the deal falls through because of these 4000, it is the seller's fault, and you could sue him for your damages - whatever you invested/paid to get into this closing. Probably not much, but I wouldn't know. Also, chances are that if he is underwater with his home mortgage, he doesn't have the money to pay you even if you win in court, so you'd end up getting only a worthless sheet of paper.



The deal should not fall through for 4000, though. Normally his bank will accept the deal, and he will end up owing those 4000 to his bank still. The amount is probably small compared to the complete mortgage, and the bank would prefer to get the big chunk now and run after the 4000, instead of potentially getting less or nothing later.

So basically, the seller is just trying to sucker you into covering his 4000-problem.






share|improve this answer



















  • 3





    This does assume that the agreement to purchase has reached the binding stage.

    – DJClayworth
    2 days ago






  • 4





    Even if it hasn't, the OP is under no obligation to raise his offer to cover the seller's unexpected expense. The amount the seller still owes does not determine the market value of the house.

    – chepner
    2 days ago






  • 3





    If I was a bank and I could sell a house with an underwater mortgage and only lose 4k on the remaining balance, I'd probably jump at the deal. Chances are the longer it takes to sell, the more money I'll lose on it.

    – corsiKa
    2 days ago






  • 1





    @chepner: But (if a binding agreement hasn't been signed) the seller is under no obligation (AFAIK, but I'm not a lawyer) to actually sell for the listed price. Bidding wars aren't unknown in hot markets. Indeed, I had this happen when I bought my current house: listed for $X, I made an offer for that, the seller came back wanting another $5K. (Which I agreed to, and still think I got a bargain :-))

    – jamesqf
    2 days ago
















23












23








23







It is certainly legal to ask you, but you are of course not required to 'donate' another 4000 - that is your choice.

If the deal falls through because of these 4000, it is the seller's fault, and you could sue him for your damages - whatever you invested/paid to get into this closing. Probably not much, but I wouldn't know. Also, chances are that if he is underwater with his home mortgage, he doesn't have the money to pay you even if you win in court, so you'd end up getting only a worthless sheet of paper.



The deal should not fall through for 4000, though. Normally his bank will accept the deal, and he will end up owing those 4000 to his bank still. The amount is probably small compared to the complete mortgage, and the bank would prefer to get the big chunk now and run after the 4000, instead of potentially getting less or nothing later.

So basically, the seller is just trying to sucker you into covering his 4000-problem.






share|improve this answer













It is certainly legal to ask you, but you are of course not required to 'donate' another 4000 - that is your choice.

If the deal falls through because of these 4000, it is the seller's fault, and you could sue him for your damages - whatever you invested/paid to get into this closing. Probably not much, but I wouldn't know. Also, chances are that if he is underwater with his home mortgage, he doesn't have the money to pay you even if you win in court, so you'd end up getting only a worthless sheet of paper.



The deal should not fall through for 4000, though. Normally his bank will accept the deal, and he will end up owing those 4000 to his bank still. The amount is probably small compared to the complete mortgage, and the bank would prefer to get the big chunk now and run after the 4000, instead of potentially getting less or nothing later.

So basically, the seller is just trying to sucker you into covering his 4000-problem.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered 2 days ago









AganjuAganju

22.1k43578




22.1k43578








  • 3





    This does assume that the agreement to purchase has reached the binding stage.

    – DJClayworth
    2 days ago






  • 4





    Even if it hasn't, the OP is under no obligation to raise his offer to cover the seller's unexpected expense. The amount the seller still owes does not determine the market value of the house.

    – chepner
    2 days ago






  • 3





    If I was a bank and I could sell a house with an underwater mortgage and only lose 4k on the remaining balance, I'd probably jump at the deal. Chances are the longer it takes to sell, the more money I'll lose on it.

    – corsiKa
    2 days ago






  • 1





    @chepner: But (if a binding agreement hasn't been signed) the seller is under no obligation (AFAIK, but I'm not a lawyer) to actually sell for the listed price. Bidding wars aren't unknown in hot markets. Indeed, I had this happen when I bought my current house: listed for $X, I made an offer for that, the seller came back wanting another $5K. (Which I agreed to, and still think I got a bargain :-))

    – jamesqf
    2 days ago
















  • 3





    This does assume that the agreement to purchase has reached the binding stage.

    – DJClayworth
    2 days ago






  • 4





    Even if it hasn't, the OP is under no obligation to raise his offer to cover the seller's unexpected expense. The amount the seller still owes does not determine the market value of the house.

    – chepner
    2 days ago






  • 3





    If I was a bank and I could sell a house with an underwater mortgage and only lose 4k on the remaining balance, I'd probably jump at the deal. Chances are the longer it takes to sell, the more money I'll lose on it.

    – corsiKa
    2 days ago






  • 1





    @chepner: But (if a binding agreement hasn't been signed) the seller is under no obligation (AFAIK, but I'm not a lawyer) to actually sell for the listed price. Bidding wars aren't unknown in hot markets. Indeed, I had this happen when I bought my current house: listed for $X, I made an offer for that, the seller came back wanting another $5K. (Which I agreed to, and still think I got a bargain :-))

    – jamesqf
    2 days ago










3




3





This does assume that the agreement to purchase has reached the binding stage.

– DJClayworth
2 days ago





This does assume that the agreement to purchase has reached the binding stage.

– DJClayworth
2 days ago




4




4





Even if it hasn't, the OP is under no obligation to raise his offer to cover the seller's unexpected expense. The amount the seller still owes does not determine the market value of the house.

– chepner
2 days ago





Even if it hasn't, the OP is under no obligation to raise his offer to cover the seller's unexpected expense. The amount the seller still owes does not determine the market value of the house.

– chepner
2 days ago




3




3





If I was a bank and I could sell a house with an underwater mortgage and only lose 4k on the remaining balance, I'd probably jump at the deal. Chances are the longer it takes to sell, the more money I'll lose on it.

– corsiKa
2 days ago





If I was a bank and I could sell a house with an underwater mortgage and only lose 4k on the remaining balance, I'd probably jump at the deal. Chances are the longer it takes to sell, the more money I'll lose on it.

– corsiKa
2 days ago




1




1





@chepner: But (if a binding agreement hasn't been signed) the seller is under no obligation (AFAIK, but I'm not a lawyer) to actually sell for the listed price. Bidding wars aren't unknown in hot markets. Indeed, I had this happen when I bought my current house: listed for $X, I made an offer for that, the seller came back wanting another $5K. (Which I agreed to, and still think I got a bargain :-))

– jamesqf
2 days ago







@chepner: But (if a binding agreement hasn't been signed) the seller is under no obligation (AFAIK, but I'm not a lawyer) to actually sell for the listed price. Bidding wars aren't unknown in hot markets. Indeed, I had this happen when I bought my current house: listed for $X, I made an offer for that, the seller came back wanting another $5K. (Which I agreed to, and still think I got a bargain :-))

– jamesqf
2 days ago















0














it is legal frm them to ask. As this point you have a right to walk away and sue them for their time spend because of false advertising (see, they want MORE than their listing - the fees are THEIR problem, so essentially they lied with the listing). There is a fine line between negotiations and fraud and if you make someone else expense energy and time and money because of giving false information you are liable.



Generally this is a liar style negotiation. They say "we list for X" but then they keep up adding other things to the price to ramp the price higher. How high their mortgage is does not matter. They could have waaaay overpaid on the house - so what, their problem. Obviously the ank will not release the house, so they need to pony up the money now. Well, there are hopefully other houses around, or you basically decide to pay a higher price. 4000USD does not sound like a big change (depending on the house) so just ponying up the money may be worth it -but it is YOUR decision, not theirs. You have no legal obligation to pay more.






share|improve this answer



















  • 1





    Your realtor should be able to answer this for you. You should have either a lawyer or a realtor for these questions. I think all the answers here are somewhat correct, but only professional with access to your paperwork is qualified to give you an opinion.

    – Gary
    yesterday
















0














it is legal frm them to ask. As this point you have a right to walk away and sue them for their time spend because of false advertising (see, they want MORE than their listing - the fees are THEIR problem, so essentially they lied with the listing). There is a fine line between negotiations and fraud and if you make someone else expense energy and time and money because of giving false information you are liable.



Generally this is a liar style negotiation. They say "we list for X" but then they keep up adding other things to the price to ramp the price higher. How high their mortgage is does not matter. They could have waaaay overpaid on the house - so what, their problem. Obviously the ank will not release the house, so they need to pony up the money now. Well, there are hopefully other houses around, or you basically decide to pay a higher price. 4000USD does not sound like a big change (depending on the house) so just ponying up the money may be worth it -but it is YOUR decision, not theirs. You have no legal obligation to pay more.






share|improve this answer



















  • 1





    Your realtor should be able to answer this for you. You should have either a lawyer or a realtor for these questions. I think all the answers here are somewhat correct, but only professional with access to your paperwork is qualified to give you an opinion.

    – Gary
    yesterday














0












0








0







it is legal frm them to ask. As this point you have a right to walk away and sue them for their time spend because of false advertising (see, they want MORE than their listing - the fees are THEIR problem, so essentially they lied with the listing). There is a fine line between negotiations and fraud and if you make someone else expense energy and time and money because of giving false information you are liable.



Generally this is a liar style negotiation. They say "we list for X" but then they keep up adding other things to the price to ramp the price higher. How high their mortgage is does not matter. They could have waaaay overpaid on the house - so what, their problem. Obviously the ank will not release the house, so they need to pony up the money now. Well, there are hopefully other houses around, or you basically decide to pay a higher price. 4000USD does not sound like a big change (depending on the house) so just ponying up the money may be worth it -but it is YOUR decision, not theirs. You have no legal obligation to pay more.






share|improve this answer













it is legal frm them to ask. As this point you have a right to walk away and sue them for their time spend because of false advertising (see, they want MORE than their listing - the fees are THEIR problem, so essentially they lied with the listing). There is a fine line between negotiations and fraud and if you make someone else expense energy and time and money because of giving false information you are liable.



Generally this is a liar style negotiation. They say "we list for X" but then they keep up adding other things to the price to ramp the price higher. How high their mortgage is does not matter. They could have waaaay overpaid on the house - so what, their problem. Obviously the ank will not release the house, so they need to pony up the money now. Well, there are hopefully other houses around, or you basically decide to pay a higher price. 4000USD does not sound like a big change (depending on the house) so just ponying up the money may be worth it -but it is YOUR decision, not theirs. You have no legal obligation to pay more.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered yesterday









TomTomTomTom

2,79221215




2,79221215








  • 1





    Your realtor should be able to answer this for you. You should have either a lawyer or a realtor for these questions. I think all the answers here are somewhat correct, but only professional with access to your paperwork is qualified to give you an opinion.

    – Gary
    yesterday














  • 1





    Your realtor should be able to answer this for you. You should have either a lawyer or a realtor for these questions. I think all the answers here are somewhat correct, but only professional with access to your paperwork is qualified to give you an opinion.

    – Gary
    yesterday








1




1





Your realtor should be able to answer this for you. You should have either a lawyer or a realtor for these questions. I think all the answers here are somewhat correct, but only professional with access to your paperwork is qualified to give you an opinion.

– Gary
yesterday





Your realtor should be able to answer this for you. You should have either a lawyer or a realtor for these questions. I think all the answers here are somewhat correct, but only professional with access to your paperwork is qualified to give you an opinion.

– Gary
yesterday





protected by JoeTaxpayer 2 days ago



Thank you for your interest in this question.
Because it has attracted low-quality or spam answers that had to be removed, posting an answer now requires 10 reputation on this site (the association bonus does not count).



Would you like to answer one of these unanswered questions instead?



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Старые Смолеговицы Содержание История | География | Демография | Достопримечательности | Примечания | НавигацияHGЯOLHGЯOL41 206 832 01641 606 406 141Административно-территориальное деление Ленинградской области«Переписная оброчная книга Водской пятины 1500 года», С. 793«Карта Ингерманландии: Ивангорода, Яма, Копорья, Нотеборга», по материалам 1676 г.«Генеральная карта провинции Ингерманландии» Э. Белинга и А. Андерсина, 1704 г., составлена по материалам 1678 г.«Географический чертёж над Ижорскою землей со своими городами» Адриана Шонбека 1705 г.Новая и достоверная всей Ингерманландии ланткарта. Грав. А. Ростовцев. СПб., 1727 г.Топографическая карта Санкт-Петербургской губернии. 5-и верстка. Шуберт. 1834 г.Описание Санкт-Петербургской губернии по уездам и станамСпецкарта западной части России Ф. Ф. Шуберта. 1844 г.Алфавитный список селений по уездам и станам С.-Петербургской губернииСписки населённых мест Российской Империи, составленные и издаваемые центральным статистическим комитетом министерства внутренних дел. XXXVII. Санкт-Петербургская губерния. По состоянию на 1862 год. СПб. 1864. С. 203Материалы по статистике народного хозяйства в С.-Петербургской губернии. Вып. IX. Частновладельческое хозяйство в Ямбургском уезде. СПб, 1888, С. 146, С. 2, 7, 54Положение о гербе муниципального образования Курское сельское поселениеСправочник истории административно-территориального деления Ленинградской области.Топографическая карта Ленинградской области, квадрат О-35-23-В (Хотыницы), 1930 г.АрхивированоАдминистративно-территориальное деление Ленинградской области. — Л., 1933, С. 27, 198АрхивированоАдминистративно-экономический справочник по Ленинградской области. — Л., 1936, с. 219АрхивированоАдминистративно-территориальное деление Ленинградской области. — Л., 1966, с. 175АрхивированоАдминистративно-территориальное деление Ленинградской области. — Лениздат, 1973, С. 180АрхивированоАдминистративно-территориальное деление Ленинградской области. — Лениздат, 1990, ISBN 5-289-00612-5, С. 38АрхивированоАдминистративно-территориальное деление Ленинградской области. — СПб., 2007, с. 60АрхивированоКоряков Юрий База данных «Этно-языковой состав населённых пунктов России». Ленинградская область.Административно-территориальное деление Ленинградской области. — СПб, 1997, ISBN 5-86153-055-6, С. 41АрхивированоКультовый комплекс Старые Смолеговицы // Электронная энциклопедия ЭрмитажаПроблемы выявления, изучения и сохранения культовых комплексов с каменными крестами: по материалам работ 2016-2017 гг. в Ленинградской области